these places, which the Apostle cites from the Old Testament, to
phrases, however contrived and heaped up one upon another, determinately to signify any such thing.
Dr. Taylor to take off the force of the whole, would have us to understand (pp. 104–107) that these passages, quoted from the Psalms, and other parts of the Old Testament, don't speak of all mankind, nor of all the Jews; but only of them of whom they were true. He observes, there were many that were innocent and righteous; though there were also many, a strong party, that were wicked, corrupt, etc. of whom these texts were to be understood. Concerning which I would observe the following things.
1. According to this, the universality of the terms that are found in these places, which the Apostle cites from the Old Testament, to prove that all the world, both Jews and Gentiles, are under sin, is nothing to his purpose. The Apostle uses universal terms in his proposition, and in his conclusion, that all are under sin, that every mouth is stopped, all the world guilty, that by the deeds of the law no flesh can be justified. And he chooses out a number of universal sayings or clauses out of the Old Testament, to confirm this universality; as (Rom. 3:10–11) "There is none righteous; no, not one; They are all gone out of the way; there is none that understandeth, etc." But yet the universality of these expressions is nothing to his purpose; because the universal terms found in 'em have indeed no reference to any such universality as this the Apostle speaks of, nor anything akin to it; they mean no universality, either in the collective sense, or personal sense; no universality of the nations of the world, or of particular persons in those nations, or in any one nation in the world: "But only of those of whom they are true." That is, [Rom. 3:10–11] "There is none of them righteous, of whom it is true, that they are not righteous, no, not one: there is none that understand, of whom it is true, that they understand not:
they are all gone out of the way, of whom it is true, that they are gone out of the way, etc." Or these expressions are to be understood concerning that strong party in Israel, in David's and Solomon's days and in the prophets' days: they are to be understood of them universally. And what is that to the Apostle's purpose? How does such an universality of wickedness, as this—that all were wicked in Israel, who were wicked, or that there was a particular evil party, all of which were wicked—confirm that universality which the Apostle would prove, viz. that all Jews and Gentiles, and the whole world were wicked, and every mouth stopped, and that no flesh could be justified by their own righteousness.
Here nothing can be said to abate the nonsense, but this, that the Apostle would convince the Jews, that they were capable of being wicked as well as other nations; and to prove it, he mentions some texts, which shew that there was a wicked party in Israel, a thousand years ago: and that as to the universal terms which happened to be in these texts, the Apostle had no respect to these; but his reciting them is as it were accidental, they happened to be in some texts which speak of an evil party in Israel, and the Apostle cites 'em as they are, not because they are any more to his purpose for the universal terms, which happen to be in them. But let the reader look on the words of the Apostle, and observe the violence of such a supposition. Particularly let the words of the 9th and 10th verses, and their connection, be observed. "All are under sin: as it is written. there is none righteous; no, not one." How plain it is, that the Apostle cites that latter universal clause out of the 14th Psalm, to confirm the preceding universal words of his own proposition? And yet it will follow from the things which Dr. Taylor supposes, that the universality of the terms in the last words, "There is none righteous; no, not one," have no relation at all to that universality he speaks of in the preceding clause, to which they are joined, "All are under sin";