CHAPTER III – Other texts produced by Universalists
CHAPTER III – Other texts produced by Universalists Unfolding the remaining texts of Scripture produced for the confirmation of the first general argument for universal redemption.
NEXT to the passage considered before, what is urged with the most confidence and pressed with the most importunity for the defense of the general ransom is, 2. 1Jn. 2:1-2 "If any man sins, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous: and he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world." Now, these words, and the deductions from them, have been set out in various dresses with a great variety of observations to make them appear advantageous to the cause in hand. The weight of the whole hangs upon this, that the apostle affirms that Christ is the "propitiation for the sins of the whole world." They say it "manifestly appears to be everyone in the world,"
First, "From the words themselves without any wresting; for what can be meant by the whole world, but all men in the world?"
Secondly, "From the contrast that is made between world and believers.
All believers comprise the first part of the apostle's assertion that Christ is a propitiation for our sins; and therefore, in contrast to all believers, the world is understood to be all others."
If anything else of import is taken in exception, we will address it in our opening of the passage which follows. Before I further clear the mind of the Holy Ghost in these words, I must tell you that I might answer the objection from this passage very briefly, and yet so solidly as to quite cut off all the quibbling exceptions of our adversaries. Namely, that "the world" used in other passages denotes men living in the world. So by "the whole world" in this passage, nothing more is meant than men living throughout the whole world, that is, in all the parts and regions of that world (in opposition to the inhabitants of any one nation, place, or country). This is what the redeemed of Christ are said to be in Rev. 5:9.
232 But because our opponents boast of this passage, I will, by God's assistance, open the sense and meaning of it in
such a way that it will appear to all how little reason they have to place any confidence in their wrested interpretation of it.
To make out the meaning of this passage, three things are to be considered:
(1.) To whom the apostle writes.
(2.) What is his purpose and aim in this particular passage.
(3.) The meaning of these two expressions:
[1.] Christ being a "propitiation;" and [2.] "The whole world."
Having done this according to the analogy of faith, the scope of this and other parallel passages, and with reference to the use of the words themselves, we will easily manifest by undeniable reasons that the text cannot be understood as it is urged and wrested for universal redemption.
(1.) To whom the Apostle writes Discovering those to whom the epistle was specifically directed will give some light into the meaning of the apostle. This is one of those things which is very valuable in the investigation of the right meaning of any passage.
For although this and an other parts of divine Scripture were given for the use, benefit, and direction of the whole church, yet many parts of it were directed to specific churches and particular persons, and some distinct sorts of persons. They so immediately aim at some things to be taught, reproved, removed, or established, with direct reference to those specific persons and churches, that it takes no labor to prove it. We have nothing written that expressly denotes those to whom this epistle was primarily directed and would enable us to make an assertion that is infallibly true and de fide. Yet, by clear and evident deduction, it may be made more than probable that it was intended for the Jews, or believers of the circumcision:
First, John was in a special manner a minister and an apostle to the Jews, and therefore they were the most immediate and proper objects of his care:
"James, Cephas, and John gave to Paul and Barnabas the right hand of fellowship, that they should go unto the heathen, and themselves unto the circumcision," Gal. 2:9. It was James whom Paul refers to there who wrote the epistle of James, because James the brother of John was slain earlier. Now, Peter and James, in the prosecution of their apostleship towards the Jews, wrote epistles to them in their dispersion, James 1:1,
1Pet. 1:1, just as Paul did to all the chief churches planted by him among
the Gentiles. So it is more than probable that John, writing the epistle, directed it primarily to those who were the chief objects of his care and apostleship.
Secondly, he frequently intimates that those to whom he wrote were those who heard and received the word from the beginning; so it says twice in this chapter in verse 7, "I write an old commandment, which you had from the beginning, …which you heard from the beginning." Now, the promulgation of the gospel had its beginnings among the Jews, and its first introduction with the Jews before the conversion of any of the Gentiles, which was a mystery for a season. This is apparent from the story of the Acts of the Apostles. chap. 1-5, 10, 11. "To the Jew first, and also to the Greek," was the divinely appointed order, Rom. 1:16.
Thirdly, the contrast that the apostle makes between us and the world in this very passage is sufficient to make apparent the ones to whom he wrote. As a Jew, he reckons himself with and among the believing Jews to whom he wrote. He sets himself with them in contrast to the residue of believers in the world; and this is usual with this apostle, and how he is to be understood as he declares in his Gospel, chap. 11:51-52.
Fourthly, the frequent mention and cautions that he gives about false teachers, seducers, and antichrists evidently declare that this epistle was especially directed to those who were more open and susceptible to the seductions of their countrymen than others. In those first days they were mostly, if not all, men of the Circumcision; this is clear from Scripture and ecclesiastical story. It was these of whom the apostle said, "they went out from them," 1Jn. 2:19.
Now this being thus cleared up, if you will also remember what was said before concerning the inveterate hatred of that people towards the Gentiles, and the ingrafted opinion they had concerning their own sole interest in the redemption procured and purchased by their Messiah, it will be no difficult thing for anyone to discern the aim of the apostle in this passage, in the expression at which we are stuck. "He," says he, "is the propitiation for our sins," – that is, our sins, those who are believers among the Jews; and lest by this assertion they should take the opportunity to confirm themselves in their former error, 234 he adds, "And not, for ours only, but for the sins of the whole world," or, "The children of God scattered abroad," as in John 11:51-
52, of whatever nation, kindred, tongue, or language they were.
235 So we do not have here a contrast between the effectual salvation of all believers and the ineffectual redemption of all others, but an extention of the same effectual redemption which belonged to the Jewish believers, to all other believers or children of God throughout the whole world.
(2.) The aim and intention of the apostle These words give consolation to believers against their sins and failings: "If any man sins, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous: and he is the propitiation for our sins." The very order and series of the words, without further enlargement, proves this to be so. He intended this consolation for believers only, so that they would not despair or utterly faint under their infirmities, because a sufficient, indeed, an effectual remedy is provided. This is evident because:
First, they alone have an advocate; it is confessed that believers alone have an interest in Christ's advocation.
Secondly, in such a case, comfort belongs only to believers; to others who are in a state and condition of alienation, wrath denounces them, John
3:36.
Thirdly, they are the "little children" to whom he writes, 1Jn. 2:1; they are the ones whom he describes in verses 12-13
237 that have "their sins forgiven them for his name's sake," and who "know the Father."
So the aim of the apostle is to offer consolation to believers in their failings; he can only speak of them. And if he should extend to everyone the consolation of which he speaks, namely, that Christ was their propitiation, I cannot conceive how this can possibly serve its purpose, or console believers; for what comfort can arise by telling them that Christ died for countless people who will be damned? Will that be any refreshment to me when I hold it in common with those who perish eternally? Is this not more a pumice-stone than a breast of consolation? If you ask, "how can comfort be given to everyone, unless Christ died for them?" I say, "If by everyone you mean all believers, Christ is, as asserted in the text, a propitiation and an advocate for them all. If by everyone, you mean all others, reprobates and unbelievers, I say that there is neither in the death of Christ nor in the word of God any solid spiritual consolation prepared for them; the children's bread must not be cast to dogs."
(3.) The meaning of the words "propitiation" and "whole world"
Next to be considered is the meaning and purpose of the word "propitiation," which Christ is said to be for "us," and "the whole world."
First, the meaning of the word "propitiation"
The word in the original is hilasmos [NT:2434], only used twice in the New Testament: here, and chap. 4:10 of this same epistle. The verb also, hilaskomai [NT:2433], is only used twice; namely, Heb. 2:17, translated there (and properly, considering the construction it is in) "to make reconciliation;" in Luke 18:13, it is the word of the publican, "Be merciful to me." There is also another word of the same root with a like meaning; it is also twice used, namely, hilasterion [NT:2435]; in Rom. 3:25, it is translated "a propitiation;" and in Heb. 9:5, it is rendered "the mercy-seat."
This will give some light into the meaning of the word. What Exodus 25:17 calls capporeth [OT:3727], from caphar [OT:3722], properly to cover, is here called hilasterion; it is what Christ is said to be in Rom. 3:25. Now, this mercy-seat was a plate of pure gold, two cubits and a half long, and a cubit and a half broad, like the uppermost plate or board of a table; that was laid upon the ark and shadowed over with the wings of the cherubim. Now, this word kapporeth comes as was said, from kaphar, whose first native and genuine sense is "to cover," (though most commonly rendered "to expiate.") This plate or mercy-seat was so called because it was placed upon the ark and covered it, as the wings of the cherubim hovered over it; the mystical use of it is to hide, as it were, the law or rigid tenor of the covenant of works which was in the ark. God thereby declares himself to be pacified or reconciled, the cause of anger and enmity being hidden. Hence the word comes to have its second acceptance, what the apostle renders hilasterion, "placamen" or "placamentum" – that by which God is appeased.
This that cover plainly signified, being shadowed with the wings of the cherubim denoting God's presence in power and goodness; the cherubim were made crouching over it, as the wings of a hen over her chickens.
Hence that prayer of David, to be "hid under the shadow of God's wings,"
Ps. 36:7, 57:1, 61:4, 63:7, 91:4 (and perhaps that allusion of our Savior in Matt. 23:37), intimating the favorable protection of God in mercy, denoted by the winds of the cherubim covering the propitiatory, embracing what covered the bill of accusation; this, typically, was that table or golden plate
or covering described before; it truly and really is Jesus Christ, as is expressly affirmed in Rom. 3:25.
Now, all this will give us some light into the meaning of the word, and so, consequently, into the sense of this place, with the mind of the Holy Ghost therein. hilasmos and hilasterion, both translated "a propitiation," with the verb of the same original do signify what was done or typically effected by the mercy seat, namely, to appease, pacify, and reconcile God with regard to aversation for sin. Hence that phrase, Heb. 2:17, "hilaskomai for the sins of the people," which the Latinists render "Expiare peccata populi," "To expiate the sins of the people." ("expiare" is, in this business, to turn away anger by an atonement. So the historian writes, "Solere reges ostenta coelestia caede aliqua illustri expiare, atque a semet in capita procerum depellere," Suet. in Neron. 36.) We render it, "To make reconciliation for the sins of the people." The word will bear both, the meaning being to appease, or pacify, or satisfy God for sin, that it might not be imputed to them towards whom he was so appeased. "Propitiation for the sins of the people," is as much as "To pacify God concerning sin." Hence the word receives another meaning, that in which it is used by the publican in Luke
18:13, '"Be merciful to me;" that is, "Let me enjoy that mercy from which flows the pardon of sin, by being appeased towards me, and reconciled to me." From all which it appears that the meaning of the word hilasmos, or "propitiation," which Christ is said to be, is that by which the law is covered, God is appeased and reconciled, sin is expiated, and the sinner is pardoned; from this image, pardon and remission of sin is so often portrayed as the product and fruit of his blood-shedding, by which he was a "propitiation," Matt. 26:28; Eph. 1:7; Col 1:14; Heb. 9:22; Rom. 3:25, 5:9;
1Jn. 1:7; 1Pet. 1:2; Rev. 1:5.
From what has been said, the evident sense of the passage is that Christ has so expiated sin, and reconciled us to God, that the sinner is pardoned and receives mercy for Christ's sake, and the law will never be produced or presented to condemn him. Now, whether this can be tolerably applied to the whole world (taking it for all and every man in the world), let all the men in the world who are able judge: Are the sins of everyone expiated? Is
God reconciled to everyone? Is every sinner pardoned? Will no one have the transgression of the law charged to him? If so, then why is everyone not saved? Doubtless, all these things are true of every believer, but of no one
else in the whole world. For them alone, the apostle affirmed that Christ is a propitiation; it is where his advocacy arises from that he promises as the fountain of their consolation, and he affirms what it consists of, which is a presentation of the atonement made by Christ's blood. Christ is also a propitiation only by faith, Rom. 3:25. Surely none but believers have faith.
And therefore it is certainly believers alone, throughout the world, for whom Christ is a propitiation. To them alone God says, "I will be propitious," – the great word of the new covenant, Heb. 8:12-13,
238 and they alone are the covenanters.
Secondly, the meaning of the phrase "of the whole world"
Let us consider the phrase "of the whole world." I will not declare how the word "world" has diverse meanings in the Scripture, partly because I have in some measure already done that; partly because it is not in itself so much insisted on here, but only with reference to its general adjunct, whole, "the whole world." And therefore, we must speak to the whole phrase together.
Now, concerning this expression, I say, First, since this phrase and what is equivalent to it, "all the world", are used seven or eight times in the New Testament, it cannot be made apparent, clearly and undeniably, that in any of these places it comprises all and every man in the world (save perhaps one, where it is used in re necessaria). Unless some circumstance in this passage enforces that sense
(which it does not), it will be a plain wresting of the words to force that interpretation on them. Let us, then, briefly look at the passages, beginning with the last, and ascending forward. Now, that is Rev. 3:10, "I will keep you from the hour of temptation, which will come "upon all the world," (the word "world" is different in the original here than it is in the place we have before us. That is because there are various words to express the same thing, but they are considered under several conceptions); In this passage it cannot signify everyone. That is evident because some are promised to be preserved from what is said to come upon it. Passing over this passage then, the next one is Col 1:6, "Which is come to you as in all the world." Where,
1. All and every man cannot be understood to be the meaning of the phrase, for they had not all then received the gospel.
2. Only believers are signified here, living abroad in the world, because the gospel is said to "bring forth fruit" in those to whom it comes, and
there is no true gospel fruit without faith and repentance.
Another passage is Rom. 1:8, "Your faith is spoken of throughout the whole world." Did everyone in the world hear and speak of the Roman faith? You have this phrase also in Luke 2:1, "There went out a decree from Caesar Augustus, that all the world should be taxed;" yet this was only the Roman empire, short enough of comprising all singular persons in the world. It is needless to repeat the rest of the passages because they are all of the same indefinite importance and meaning.
If, then, the expression itself does not show any such universality as is pretended, unless the matter in which it is used and the circumstances of the passage require it (neither of which apply in John 3:16), there is no basis to fasten such an acceptance on it. Rather we may conclude that since "all the world" and "the whole world", as used in other passages, are taken indefinitely for men of all sorts throughout the world, the same words are not to be understood differently here.
Secondly, "the whole world" can signify no more than all nations, all the families of the earth, all flesh, all men, or all the ends of the world. These surely are expressions equivalent to and as comprehensive in their particulars as "the whole world." But we frequently find all these expressions refer to believers only, of all sorts, as situated throughout the world. Why should this phrase not also be affirmed to be, in the same matter, of the same and no other importance? We may give some instances in other passages: "All the ends of the earth have seen the salvation of our
God," Ps. 98:3; "All the ends of the world shall remember and turn to the LORD, and all the kindreds of the nations shall worship before you," Ps.
22:27; "All nations shall serve you," Ps. 72:11. These general expressions denote no more than the believers of all the various nations of the world who alone see the salvation of God, remember, and turn to him and serve him. So it is in Joel 2:28, "I will pour out of my Spirit upon all flesh;" these words are repeated on the accomplishment of that promise in Acts
2:17. Luke uses the same expression as part of a sermon of John Baptist, "All flesh shall see the salvation of God."
239 What a conquest we would have proclaimed if it had been affirmed anywhere that Christ died for all flesh, all nations, all kindreds, etc.! These are merely the liveries
240 of believers, though garments as wide and as large as this expression, "the whole world." Believers are called "all nations" in Isa. 2:2, 66:18; indeed,
"all men," Tit. 2:11. For it is to believers alone that the salvation-bringing grace of God is manifested. If then the children of God are, as is apparent in the Scripture phrases all flesh, all nations, all kindreds, all the ends of the world, all the ends of the earth, and all men, then why not also the whole world?
Thirdly, "the whole world" does sometimes signify the worser part of the world; and why may it not, by a like synecdoche,
241 signify the better part of that? Rev. 12:9, "The Devil, and Satan, which deceives the whole world, is cast out;" that is, the wicked and reprobate in the whole world, while all others rejoice in his overthrow, verse 10. 1Jn. 5:19, "The whole world lies in wickedness," where "the whole world" is opposed to those who are "of God" in the beginning of the verse. You have the contrary sense in Col. 1:6.
This then being said to clarify the meaning of the expression that is insisted on here, will make it evident that there is nothing at all in the words themselves that would force anyone to conceive that all and every man in the world are denoted by them. Rather they denote believers, all that did or would believe throughout the whole world, in contrast to believers of the Jewish nation. Besides what has been clearly demonstrated so far, I further prove that this is the meaning of the passage in 1 Jn 2:1-2 for these reasons:
First, this passage does not address the ransom of Christ with regard to impetration, 243 but with regard to application; 244 for it affirms that Christ is a ransom by his death, which he is, but only by faith, as manifested in Rom. 3:25.
245 Also, consolation only arises from the actual application of that ransom to a believer; now, no one ever said that the application of the death of Christ was universal: therefore, this passage cannot regard everyone.
Secondly, Christ is said here to be a propitiation only for those who are intended in the passage, which is apparent; but only believers are intended, for it is intended to console them in their failings (in which case consolation belongs to them alone 246): therefore, it is only for believers, though believers of all sorts, times, places, and conditions; those for whom Christ is said to be a propitiation.
Thirdly, this kind of phrase and expression in other places in Scripture cannot possibly be tortured to such an extent as to comprehend everyone, as should be apparent from the previous passages which alleged to do so.
To these we might add Matt. 3:5, "Then all Judea went out to him, and all the region round about Jordan;" this included the Pharisees who rejected his baptism.
247 Why, then, should the phrase be understood to include everyone here in 1Jn.2:1-2, especially when all the circumstances (as has been shown) are contrary to such an interpretation?
Fourthly, the most clear parallel passages in the Scripture are opposite to the sense being imposed on 1John 2:1-2. See Col. 1:6;
248 John 11:51, 52.
Fifthly, if the words are understood to signify everyone in the world, then the whole assertion is useless as to the chief end it intends, namely, the consolation of believers. For what consolation arises to any believer to say that Christ was a propitiation for those who perish? Indeed, to say that he was a sufficient propitiation for them, though not effectual, yields no more comfort to them than it would have yielded Jacob and his sons to hear from Joseph that he had sufficient corn to sustain them all, but whether he would do so was altogether uncertain. For had he told them he would sustain them sufficiently, though not effectually, they might have starved notwithstanding his courtesy.
"The whole world," then, in this passage, is the whole people of God (as opposed to the Jewish nation), who are scattered abroad throughout the whole world, of whatever nation, kindred, tongue, or family. It is those who are some of all sorts, not all of every sort, so that this passage makes no argument for general redemption.
There are some objections usually laid against our interpretation of this passage of the apostle, but they are all prevented or removed in the explication itself; so it will suffice for us to name just one or two of them:
OBJECTION 1. "It is the intention of the apostle to comfort all in their fear and doubt; but everyone in the world may be in fear and doubt: therefore, he proposes this propitiation for all, that they may all be comforted."
ANSWER: All may be in fear and doubt, yet as far as the business of consolation goes, the phrase must of necessity be restrained to believers, as declared before.
OBJECTION 2. "All believers are comprehended in the first part, 'For our sins;' and therefore by extending the assertion, all others are intended by adding, 'For the sins of the whole world'"
ANSWER:
1. In the first part, the believing Jews alone are intended, of whom John was one; 249 and the addition is therefore not an extension of the propitiation of Christ to others who are unbelievers, but only to other believers.
2. It might be granted that in the first part, all believers then living were comprehended, those who might presently be made partakers of this truth; if so, then by analogy the increase must be only those who were to become believers in later ages and in remoter places than the name of Christ had then reached; it would refer to all those, according to the prayer of our
Savior in John 17:20, who would believe on his name to the end of the world. And thus the two main passages produced to confirm the first argument are vindicated from the false glosses and violent twists of our adversaries; the rest will be easily cleared.
3. John 6:51
251, where our Savior affirms that he will give his "flesh for the life of the world." This giving of himself was the sanctifying and offering up of himself as an acceptable oblation for the sins of those for whom he suffered; his intention is that those for whom he offered himself in dying might thereby have eternal life.
Because it was not for the Jews only, but also for all the elect of God everywhere, he calls them "the world." The world here cannot signify everyone that ever was or will be; this is as manifest as if it were written with the beams of the sun; and that is because "the world" is made the object of Christ's intent, which is to purchase for them, and bestow upon them, life and salvation. Now, I ask whether any man, not bereaved of all spiritual and natural sense, can imagine that Christ, in his oblation, intended to purchase life and salvation for all those whom he knew to be damned many ages before, the irreversible decree of wrath having gone forth against them? Or who dares affirm that Christ gave himself for the life of those who, notwithstanding his sacrifice, by his appointment to save, still come short of salvation unto eternity? If we had no other place but this one to show that the word "world" does not always signify all, but only signifies
The next passage urged in the argument is John 6:51
some of all sorts, as are the elect of God, though this passage is produced by our adversaries to prove the contrary, I hope with all equitable readers that our defense of it would receive no prejudice.
4. 2Cor 5:19
I find various other passages produced by Thomas Moore in chap. 14 of the "Universality of Free Grace" to prove the pretended universal redemption; these, along with that whole chapter, will be briefly considered.
The first insisted upon by him is 2Cor 5:19, "God was in Christ reconciling the world to himself, not imputing their trespasses to them."
ANSWER:
1. Really he must have no small confidence in his own strength and his readers' weakness, who would undertake from this passage to conclude the universality of redemption, and that "the world" signifies everyone in it.
Those who are called the "world" in verse 19 are termed "us" in verse 18, "He has reconciled us to himself by Jesus Christ;" this is also true in verse
21 where they are further described by Christ's being "made sin for them," and their being "made the righteousness of God in him." Are these things true of all who are in the world? If this text may receive any light from what is before and after it, if the word may receive any interpretation from those expressions which directly speak to it, then "the world" here can only mean elect believers.
2. The description of God's reconciling the world to himself evidently consists in or necessarily infers a non-imputation of sin to that world and an imputation of the righteousness of Christ, verse 21. Now, the blessedness of justification in Christ consists in these two things, Rom. 4:6, 7; therefore this whole world, which God in Christ reconciles to himself, is a blessed, justified world; and therefore not every one of the sons of men that ever were, or are, or will be in the world, are included; for the great part of them lie in evil.
3. This "God in Christ reconciling" holds out an effectual work of reconciliation. Now, this must be either an absolute reconciliation or a conditional reconciliation. If it is absolute, then why are not all actually and absolutely reconciled, pardoned, and justified? If it is conditional, then, first, how can a conditional reconciliation be reconciled with what is actual?
Secondly, why is no condition mentioned here? Thirdly, what is that
condition? Is it faith and believing? Then the sense of the words must be either, first, "God was in Christ reconciling a believing world to himself," in which case there is no need, for believers are reconciled; or, secondly,
"God was in Christ reconciling an unbelieving world to himself, on condition that it believes;" that is, on condition that it is not unbelieving; that is, on condition that it is reconciled. Is this the mind of the Holy Spirit?
Fourthly, if this reconciliation of the world consists (as it does) in a nonimputation of sin, then this is either a non-imputation of all their sins, or only of some sins. If it is only of some, then Christ saves only from some sins. If it is of all sins, then it is of unbelief also, or else unbelief is no sin; if that were true, then all the men in the world must be saved, because their unbelief is pardoned. The world here, then, is only the world of blessed, pardoned believers, who are "made the righteousness of God in Christ."
What Thomas Moore brings to enforce the opposite meaning of the word is, in so many words, very little. He spends a great deal of time with many uncouth 252 expressions to prove that there is a twofold reconciliation intimated in the text. The first reconciliation is of God to us by Christ, the other is of us to God by the Spirit; which we also grant, though we do not divide them, but make them several parts of the same reconciliation. The former is the rule of the latter for, look, whomever is reconciled to God in and by Christ, will certainly be reconciled to God by the Spirit; God's reconciliation to them consists in a non-imputation of their sins; their reconciliation to him consists in an acceptance of that non-imputation in Jesus Christ. And as it is the rule of the latter, so is it the chief motive for it.
It is the subject or matter of the message in the gospel by which it is effected. So the assertion that there is a twofold reconciliation, or rather two branches of the same complete work of reconciliation, establishes our persuasion that "the world" can only be taken to mean the elect in that world.
But he brings further light from the context to strengthen his interpretation.
"For," he says, "those of the world here are called 'men,' verse 11 ; men that must 'appear before the judgment-seat of Christ,' verse 10; that were
'dead,' verse 14; that ought to live unto Christ, verse 15: therefore, all men." Now, "homini homo quid interest?" How easy is it for some men to prove what they please! Only let me tell you, one thing more is to be done so that the cause may be yours, namely, proving that the elect of God are
not men; that they must not appear before the judgment-seat of Christ; that they were not dead; that they ought not to live to Christ. Do this, or you lose the reward.
But he adds, First, "Of these, some are reconciled to God," verse 18.
ANSWER: It is most false that there is any limitation or restriction of reconciliation to some of those whom he addresses; it is rather evidently extended to all of them.
Secondly, "But some are not reconciled," verse 11.
ANSWER: There is not a word of any such thing in the text, nor can the least hint possibly be wrested from the text for any such assertion. "Many corrupt the word of God."
5. John 1:9
A second passage he urges is John 1:9, "That was the true Light, which lights every man that comes into the world." "This world," he says, "is the world of mankind, verse 4, made by Christ, verse 3; which was his own by creation, mercy, and purchase, yet they 'received him not,' verses 5, 10, 11.
Therefore, it is manifest that there is life, and that Christ died for all."
ANSWER: "The world" here does not mean men in the world, whether all or some, but the habitable part of the earth. This is more apparent than can well admit of proof or illustration. The phrase "coming into the world" cannot possibly be apprehended any other way. It is the same as being born, and coming to breathe the common air. Now, among the expositions of this passage that seem most consonant and agreeable to the discourse of the apostle, with other expressions that are used here, the word "coming" refers to "light" and not to "man"; the words should thus be rendered, "That was the true Light, which, coming into the world, lights every man." So it is in John 3:19, "Light has come into the world;" and chap. 12:46, "I am a light come into the world;" – parallel expressions to this one. So nothing can be extorted from the word "world" for the universality of grace or ransom. The whole weight must lie on the words "every man," which Thomas Moore does not at all insist upon; and if anyone else should insist upon them, the subject of the phrase which holds out the actual illumination can be extended to no more than those who are indeed illuminated.
Christ, then, coming into the world, is said to enlighten every man, partly because every man that has any light has it from him; that is partly because he is the only true light and fountain of illumination, so that he enlightens everyone who is enlightened. This is all the text avers, and it is denied by none. But whether everyone in the world, before and after his incarnation, were, are, and will actually be enlightened with the knowledge of Christ by his coming into the world, let Scripture, experience, reason, and sense determine. And this, in brief, may suffice to manifest the weakness of the argument for universal redemption from this passage. Waiving for the present another interpretation of the words, and rendering the enlightening that is mentioned here as that of reason and understanding which is communicated to all, Christ is here proposed to be in his divine nature the light of all, even the eternal wisdom of his Father.
6. John 1:29
A third place is John 1:29, "Behold the Lamb of God, which takes away the sin of the world;" and this, he says, is spoken of the world in general.
ANSWER:
1. Even if it is spoken of the world in general, yet nothing can be inferred from that which leads to a universality of individuals.
2. That Christ is "the Lamb" is most certain; He is the one that takes away, bears, purges, or pardons, as the word is used in 2Sam. 24:10. He takes away "the sin," great sin, original sin, "of the world," meaning the sin that is common to all. He takes it away by justification so that it will not condemn; he takes it away by sanctification so that it should not reign; he takes it away by glorification so that it should not exist. But to say that he takes it away from, bears it for, pardons it for, and purges it out of all and every man in the world is not in the least manner intimated in the text, and this is exceedingly false in itself.
7. John 3:17
John 3:17 is the next passage urged by him, "God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but that the world might be saved through him."
ANSWER: A notable or eminent inversion of the word "world" in this passage was observed before; it is like that in chap. 1:10, "He was in the
world," or on the earth, a part of it, "and the world was made by him," the whole would, with all the things contained in it, "and the world did not know him," or most men living in the world. So here in the first place, "the world" means that part of the world in which our Savior lived has the name of the whole world assigned to it. In the second place, you may take it to mean everyone in the world if you please (though from the text it cannot be enforced); for the prime end of our Savior's coming was not to condemn anyone, but to save his own; much less was it to condemn everyone in the world out of which he was to save his elect. In the third place, only those whom God sent his Son on purpose to save are intended, as the words eminently show. Saving those who then are called "the world" was the very purpose and design of God in sending his Son. Now, it is evident that these are not all men, but only believing Jews and Gentiles throughout the world because:
1. All are not saved, and the Lord has said "he will do all his pleasure, and his purpose shall stand."
2. Most men were at that instant actually damned. Did he send his Son so that they might be saved?
3. Christ was appointed for the fall of some, Luke 2:34, 254 and, therefore he was not appointed so that everyone might be saved.
4. The purpose of Christ's actual exhibition and of being sent in the flesh is not opposite to any of God's eternal decrees which were eternally fixed concerning the condemnation of some for their sins.
Did he send his Son to save such as these? Does he act contrary to his own purposes, or fail in his undertakings? The "saved world" is the people of God scattered abroad throughout the world.
8. John 4:42; 1Jn. 4:14; John 6:51
John 4:42, and 1Jn. 4:14, along with John 6:51 (which was considered before), are also produced by Thomas Moore; in all of these passages Christ is called the "Savior of the world."
ANSWER: Christ is said to be the Savior of the world either because there is no other Savior for anyone in the world, and because he saves all who are saved, meaning all the people of God all over the world (not the Jews only); or else it is because he actually saves all the world and everyone in it. If it is
in this latter way, victory to Mr. Moore; if it is meant in the former way, "we are still where we were."
9. John 12:46
Urging John 12:46, "I am come a light into the world," deserves to be noted, but not answered. John 3:16-17 and 1John 2:1-2 have been already considered. Some other texts are produced, but they are so exceedingly wrested, strangely perverted, and so extremely useless to the business in hand, that I dare not make so bold with the reader's patience as once to repeat them.
And this is our defense and answer to the first principal argument of our opposers, our explication of all those texts of Scripture which they have wrested to support it, the basis of their strength being but the ambiguity of one word. Let the Christian reader "Prove all things, and hold fast what is good."